Saturday, 8 May 2010

The Tories have no mandate to rule Scotland

I've been invited to join a Facebook group entitled "Tories have no mandate to rule Scotland".

Does the government rule? Or does the government just govern and its either the people or the queen who rules.

Does the statement "Labour has no mandate to rule England" stand up as much as the former?

Supposing that ruling and governing amount to the same thing, and that somehow the Conservative party form a minority government, would cutting off Scotland's funding satisfy those who joined the Facebook group? It would sure help with reducing the deficit. But I doesn't see an independent Scotland getting a bailout from the EU, there's a long queue.

Anyhoo, the Westminster parliament is an English and Welsh affair, which has temporarily allowed the Scots and the northern Irish to join, to the mutual prosperity of all the UK nations. Its only fair that in this period of economic decline those who wish to be cast adrift are.

How about "The Tories have no mandate to rule Brent North"? Would that work?


  1. Labours' Barry Gardiner was re-elected, increasing his majority while still loosing 2% of the voter share since the 2005 election.

    Electoral reform anyone?

  2. let's rebuild Hadrian's wall - seen Doomsday?

  3. Population of Scotland = a tad over 5m. So does that mean any area containing more than 5m people can claim that if they are outvoted by the rest of the nation, they don't have to follow any laws passed by the majority? Could the Home Counties have declared UDI from Labour rule over the last 13 years?